A 34 year old man has difficulty walking after sustaining a traumatic injury to his right leg. Physical examination reveals a right foot that is dorsiflexed and everted. The patient is unable to stand on his tiptoes. What is the most likely area of sensory loss in this patient?
e patient most likely lost his Tibial nerve. Tibial nerve can be injured in the popliteal fossa due to stabbing wound or trauma. It innervates the posterior thigh which is responsible for flexing the leg and the posterior leg muscles which are responsible for plantar flexion of the foot and digits. After the motor supply it divides into medial and lateral plantar nerves to provide sensory innervation to the skin of the distal plantar surface of the foot. Therefore the area of sensory loss most likely lost is the skin of the distal plantar surface of the foot.
A positive allosteric activator of PFK1 (phosphofructokinase-1) in the liver is?
PFK2/fructose-2,6-bisphosphatase is a bifunctional enzyme. Under insulin rule, the enzyme is dephosphorylated & PFK2 is predominant, which yields fructose 2,6-bisphosphate. This allosterically activates PFK-1 for glycolysis. Therefore a positive allosteric activator would be fructose 2,6 bisphosphate.
A 5-year-old boy is admitted to the emergency department after a car collision. Radiologic examination reveals a fracture of the head of the femur. An MRI examination reveals a large hematoma. Which of the following arteries is most likely injured?
The correct answer is the Acetabular branch of the obturator artery. Key words in this stem are the patients age as well as the fact that the fracture is at the head of the femur. In children under 8 the acetabular branch of the obturator artery is still patent, therefore it is the most likely location of the injury.