Is there a difference between func1 and func2? If so, why? What will the output be for each (if a difference exists)? (note: using Python 3 interpreter) def func1(args): print(args) def func2(args): return(args) def __main__: print(func1(arg)) print(func2(arg))
Yes, there is a difference: the first function, func1, simply prints the argument; func2, however, returns the argument. While both will actually print the argument to the screen, func1, however, will have an output that looks like this: OUTPUT arg None Whereas func2 will look like this: OUTPUT arg The first line in func1 is a call to print the argument "arg"; the second line is a call to print the return-value of func1, which, since it is unspecified, returns None. However, in func2, we are simply printing the return value of the argument; therefore, only the argument is shown.
Does Spanish have a future tense (aka are future tense inflections present)? Does it differ in any way from English.
Yes, Spanish has a future tense. It's verbs have future-tense inflections, whereas English, however, has modal verbs such as "will", which exist outside the actual verb to designate tense; hence, unlike Spanish, English has no future "tense," but rather only indications of something occurring within the future time-frame.
Is language inherent or acquired? In other words, is it part of our fundamental human nature, or do we actually have to learn the rules of grammar?
Language, according to the field of Linguistics, is innate, and not something that can simply be "taught." It is unique to human beings, and grammatical rules that are prescriptive (such as "you cannot end a sentence with a preposition") do not carry (as much) weight with linguists as they do with traditional grammarians and standard English teachers. Rather, Linguistics takes a descriptive approach, meaning that if it "sounds" right to the native speaker--regardless of the grammaticality of the utterance--it is counted as "correct" within the linguistic framework.